1. Optic neuropathy have been reported with:
a. HLA-B27 is found in 90% of sufferers
b. uveitis is found in 15 to 20% of sufferers
c. the condition is commoner in female
d. female sufferers have a more severe course than male
e. the radiological changes can occur in the spine before symptoms
a. scleromalacia perforans are more commonly associated with systemic
diseases than posterior scleritis
b. pain is not a prominent feature
c. retinal detachment is a known complication
d. systemic steroid is indicated in all scleritis
e. glaucoma is a known complication
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Schistosoma haemolytica
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Loa loa
e. Leishmania donovani
a. the condition is more common in Caucasian than other races
b. the incidence is higher in female than males
c. the optic nerve is commonly infiltrated by the tumour
d. epithelioid cell type has poorer prognosis than other cell type
e. abdominal CT scanning is more sensitive than blood test in detecting
hepatic metastasis
a. the condition is inherited in autosomal dominant manner
b. it is caused by defect in the formation of type I collagen
c. the lens typically shows upper nasal subluxation
d. the patients have a higher incidence of hypermetropic refractive
error
e. the sufferers tend to be mentally subnormal
a. it is an RNA virus
b. causes Koplik's spots on the conjunctiva
c. acute catarrhal conjunctivitis is a known features
d. causes blinding keratitis in the presence of vitamin A deficiency
e. causes subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
a. is a fungal metabolite
b. has poor tissue penetration when applied topically
c. is the drug of choice in Behcet's disease
d. causes hepatotoxicity as the main side effects
e. hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia are known side effects
a. the most common cause is tuberculosis
b. the lesions are typically found near the limbus
c. should not be treated with steroid
d. predominantly affects children
e. is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction
a. external ophthalmoplegia is a typical feature
b. failure of the pupils to respond to light
c. the condition is found in patients with gastric carcinoma
d. post-mortem reveals perivascular haemorrhages in the region of the
fourth ventricle and aqueduct
e. the condition responds to high dose vitamin B12
12. Features of tentorial herniation include:
a. vomiting
b. deterioration of consciousness
c. dilated pupil
d. impaired respiration
e. hemiparesis
a. hypogonadism
b. obesity
c. polydactyly
d. mental retardation
e. pigmentary retinopathy
a. is associated with HLA B1
b. is commoner in elderly people
c. causes caseating granuloma
d. produces bilateral hilar lymphadenopathies in the absence of pulmonary
symptoms
e. causes lymphocytosis
a. 25% of the black population have sickle cell disease
b. the most severe form of sickle cell retinopathy is associated with
SS disease
c. optic disc is the first site of neovascularization in patient with
severe retinal ischamia
d. salmon patches are the result of ischaemia
e. choroidal ischaemia is the main cause of visual loss
a. neuro-sensory deafness from birth
b. posterior lenticonus
c. retinal detachment
d. peripheral retinal fleck
e. haemorrhage nephritis
17. Corneal deposits are seen in:
a. Hurler's syndrome
b. Morquio's syndrome
c. myeloma
d. cystinosis
e. Sanfilippo's syndrome
a. it is a common cause of rubeosis iridis
b. can cause neovascularisation of the retina
c. is a recognized complication of atrial fibrillation
d. fluorescence angiography typically shows delayed hyperfluorescence
of the choroidal circulation
e. causes optic atrophy within the first week
a. there is an increased incidence of hypermetropia
b. the patients typically presents after the age of 18 months
c. bifocal glasses are commonly prescribed for these patients in the
United Kingdom
d. the binocular fusion is usually poor
e. inferior oblique overaction is a common feature
a. it can be used to correct hypermetropic accommodative esotropia
b. it is used in patients with esotropia due to high AC/A ratio
c. it can cause iris cysts the incidence of which can be reduced with
concurrent treatment with phenylephrine
d. it causes retinal detachments
e. it should be stopped in patients about to undergo strabismus surgery
21. In infantile esotropia:
a. amblyopia is uncommon
b. the majority of patients have associated neurological deficit
c. a high refractive error is common
d. dissociated vertical deviation is found in 75% of cases
e. monocular opticokinetic asymmetry is a feature
a. there is inverse opticokinetic nystagmus
b. the nystagmus is worse with convergence
c. the nystagmus is worse when one eye is covered
d. oscillopsia is a common complaint
e. paradoxical pupillary constriction to darkness
23. In Brown's syndrome:
a. there is downshooting of the ipsilateral eye on adduction
b. there is associated superior rectus overaction in the contralateral
eye
c. may resolve spontaneously
d. can be treated by inferior rectus recession in the contralateral
eye
e. can be treated by inferior oblique recession in the ipsilateral
eye
a. reduced adduction on the affected side
b. reduced convergence
c. nystagmus on abduction in the affected side
d. diplopia can occur
e. there is abnormal opticokinetic nystagmus
a. reduced abduction of the ipsilateral eye
b. pupillary constriction on abduction
c. cyclotorsion on elevation
d. elevation of the contralateral lid on lateral gaze
e. elevation of the lid on ipsilateral adduction
a. the diagnosis can be confirmed with edrophonium
b. females are more commonly affected than males
c. causes problem with reading that can be corrected with plus lenses
d. constriction of pupil can occur
e. partial relative afferent pupillary defect is seen in 50% of cases
a. Sturge-Weber's syndrome
b. Sickle cell disease SS
c. pseudoexfoliation syndrome
d. septo-optic dysplasia
e. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
a. it is a prostaglandin inhibitors
b. it reduces the intraocular pressure by increasing the uveal scleral
outflow
c. it has a greater effect than beta blockers in reducing the intraocular
pressure
d. hypertrichosis is a known side effects
e. it is contra-indicated in patients with corneal graft rejection
29. Features of pigmentary glaucoma include:
a. there is a restriction of upgaze
b. normal ventricles is found in 50% of cases
c. brain scan is important in young woman to exclude saggital sinus
thrombosis
d. optic nerve fenetration should be performed early before the vision
is affected
e. ventricular-peritoneal shunt is indicated in the majority of patients
a. rifampicin
b. contraceptive pill
c. oral penicillin
d. erythromycin
e. digoxin
a. is caused by purine metabolism disorder
b. causes scleritis
c. causes tophi in the extraocular muscle tendon
d. is directly related to alcohol consumption
e. uric crystals may be found in the deep stroma
a. Fleischer's ring is found at the apex of keratoconus
b. Hudson-Stahli line is found in recurrent erosion syndrome
c. Stocker's line is associated with pterygium
d. Ferry's line is found at the front of a trabeculectomy bleb
e. iron deposition occurs in radial keratotomy
34. The following are true about corneal grafts:
a. zenografts refers to transplant between different species
b. isografts refers to transplant between the same species
c. lamellar keratoplasty is useful in patient with Fuch's dystrophy
d. previous blood transfusion increases the incidence of rejection
e. broken corneal suture can elicit rejection
a. optic neuritis
b. Stargardt's disease
c. tobacco amblyopia
d. macular degeneration
e. primary open angle glaucoma
37. The following clinical features are suggestive of a cavernous sinus lesion in a patient with unilateral third nerve palsy:
a. dilatation of the pupil
b. impaired ipsilateral corneal reflex
c. constriction of pupil
d. failure of the eye to abduct
e. hearing loss
a. dilated superior ophthalmic vein on CT scan
b. blood in the Schlemmn's canal
c. proptosis of contralateral eye suggests bilateral carotid-cavernous
fistula
d. dural fistula is the commonest type seen following head injury
e. traumatic fistula rarely close spontaneously
39. The following conditions are X-linked:
a. Fabry's disease
b. Refsum's disease
c. Norries's disease
d. choroideremia
e. rod monochromatism
a. Axenfeld's syndrome has posterior embryotoxon and iris hypoplasia
b. Axenfeld's syndrome is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder
c. Rieger's anomaly is associated with dental and facial hypoplasia
d. Peter's anomaly is associated with bilateral corneal opacities
e. Peter's anomaly is associated with glaucoma in 50% of cases
a. 8% of the population have the condition
b. photocoagulation is recommended for extensive cases
c. holes should be treated
d. it has a higher incidence amongst high myopes
e. 25% of retinal detachment is due to lattice degeneration
a. immobilized retina
b. bullous lesion where tear cannot be identified
c. hypotony
d. superior retinal detachment
e. presence of blood in the vitreous
a. it can cause secondary retinal tear
b. it can cause cataract
c. C3F8 has a longer half life than SF6
d. SF6 is more expansile than C3F8
e. SF6 causes less increase in the intraocular pressure than C3F8
44. In ptosis operation:
a. brow suspension is the treatment of choice in severe congenital ptosis
b. Fasavella-Servant is the treatment of choice in patients without
levator function
c. posterior approach is the recommended procedure in patient with
previous ptosis surgery
d. maximal resection is recommended in patients with mitochondrial
myopathy
e. Bell's phenomenon and corneal sensation should be carefully assessed
before surgery
a. ipsilateral superior recession
b. ipsilateral inferior oblique recession
c. contralateral inferior rectus resection
d. ipsilateral superior oblique tucking
e. ipsilateral inferior rectus recession
46. The following are true about corneal blood staining:
a. it occurs in about 5% of hyphema
b. it is related to the severity of the hyphaema
c. it is commoner in decompensated cornea
d. it is caused by red blood cells migrating into the stroma
e. spontaneous clearing of the hyphema typically begins centrally
47. In acute bacterial endophthalmitis following cataract operation:
a. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common pathogen
b. presents within 48 hours of surgery in the majority of cases
c. topical and systemic antibiotic are usually adequate to control
the infection
d. steroid is contraindicated
e. it is often difficult to differentiate bacterial from mycotic causes
48. In peripheral iridotomy with laser:
a. dark colour iris responds poorly to argon laser iridotomy
b. more energy is needed for argon laser than YAG laser for a given
size iridotomy
c. steroid pre-treatment is effective in decreasing the intraocular
pressure
d. presence of red reflex during the procedure indicate the iridotomy
is patent
e. significant cataract develops in 50% of cases following treatment
49. Unsuitable donor for corneal graft include:
a. a history of conjunctivitis
b. history of hepatitis A
c. less than 10 years old
d. endothelial cell count of less than 2000 per square mm
e. senile dementia
a. the success rate is proportional to the energy used
b. the results are better in the elderly than the young
c. the intraocular pressure is reduced due to decreased aqueous production
d. typically produce a drop in the intraocular pressure of between
10 and 15 mmHg
e. it is used as an adjunctive treatment to maximal medical therapy
a. radial keratotomy may be used in myopes of 10D or more
b. radial keratotomy is a well-established safe techniques with predictable
result
c. post-operative astigmatism may be reduced by removing the suture
along the axis of the largest plus cylinders
d. post-operative astigmatism may be reduced by removing sutures in
the flatter axis
e. keratomileusis involves using a donor cornea
a. phacoemulsification rather than extracapsular technique
b. the use of foldable lens
c. a limbal incision rather than a corneal incision
d. superior corneal approach rather than temporal approach
e. divide and conquer technique during phacoemulsification rather than
phaco-chop
53. The following are true about anterior capsule removal in cataract surgery:
a. capsulorrhexis produces a stronger edge than can-opener capsulotomy
b. capsulorrhexis requires less viscoelastic than can-opener capsulotomy
c. displacement of the intraocular lens is less common with capsulorrhexis
than can-opener capsulotomy
d. hydrodissection of the lens is not required with capsulorrhexis
e. capsulorrhexis is an easier technique to master than can-opener
capsulotomy
a. need careful prism measurement
b. is performed in ipsilateral fourth nerve palsy to remove cyclotorsion
c. is performed in V-pattern esotropia
d. is performed in contralateral superior rectus palsy
e. is easier to perform than inferior oblique myectomy
55. In unrecovered sixth nerve palsy:
a. surgery can speed up recovery
b. botulinum toxin injection into the ipsilateral medial rectus speeds
up recovery
c. resection/recession is in appropriate
d. no more than two muscles should be operated
e. can be treated with Faden's procedure on the contralateral medial
rectus
a. it causes visual impairment in 10% of uncomplicated extracapsular
cataract operation
b. the incidence of cystoid macular oedema is higher in intracapsular
cataract extraction than extracapsular cataract operation
c. the risk of cystoid macular oedema is increased in patients who
have post-operative corneal oedema
d. vitreous prolapsed is a known precipitating factor for cystoid macular
oedema
e. malpositioned of intraocular lens is a recognized factor for cystoid
macular oedema
a. Stage 1: normal retina
b. Stage 2: presence of demarcation lines that protrude into the vitreous
c. Stage 3: presence of fibrovascular proliferation in the peripheral
retina
d. Stage 4: total retinal detachment
e. Stage 5: proliferative vitreous retinopathy
a. the age when glaucoma develops is older than primary open angle glaucoma
b. the intraocular pressure always responds better to medical treatment
than primary open angle glaucoma
c. asymmetrical glaucoma is more common than primary open angle glaucoma
d. there is an increased pigment deposition in the trabecular meshwork
e. trabeculectomy is less successful in controlling the pressure than
in primary open angle glaucoma.
59. In radiation retinopathy:
a. the main pathology is occlusive microangiopathy
b. the lowest dose of radiation required to cause radiation retinopathy
is 11 Gy
c. the photoreceptors are more sensitive to radiation than the retinal
vascular cells
d. patients on chemotherapy are more vulnerable to radiation retinopathy
e. hyperbaric oxygen is useful in preventing the progression of radiation
retinopathy
a. peribulbar anaesthesia requires a longer time than retrobulbar anaesthesia
to achieve akinesia
b. lignocaine requires a shorter time than marcaine to achieve anaesthesia
c. lignocaine has a longer duration of action than marcaine
d. topical amethocaine is inadequate for iris anaesthesia
e. retrobulbar haemorrhage increases the risk of expulsive haemorrhage