1. The following have phagocytic activity
- Microglial cells
- Tissue histiocytes
- Kupffer cells
- Polymorphic neutrophils
2. Chemotactic factors
- activate macrophages
3. Emigration of neutrophils is aided by
- increased tissue osmotic pressure
- increased hydrostatic pressure
- active amoeboid action
- antibodies
4. The following is true about viruses
- produce interferon
- are gram positive
- can only divide in living cells
5. BCG vaccination
- is given to tuberculin positive individuals
- may cause regional lymph node swelling
- is given intradermally
- consists of killed strain of mycobacteria tuberculosis
6. Corticosteroids
- if given for more than 3 weeks should not be stopped abruptly
- 80% of prednisolone is inactivated when it crosses the placenta
- if given in the morning, effects of suppression are minimised
- delays absorption of haemorrhage and lens material
- when given topically
7. Immunoglobulins
- are produced by hepatocytes
- in primary biliary cirrhosis are organ specific
- Ig A protects mucosal surfaces
8. Azathioprine
- should be monitored with regular full blood count
- should not be given with steroids
- predominant side effect is nephrotoxicity
- in high doses can be cytotoxic
9. The following tissues are liable to damage by ionising radiation
- cerebral neurons
- skin
- bone marrow
- intestinal mucosa
- muscle
10. The following can cause benign intracranial hypertension
- vitamin A
- ethambutol
- croticosteroids
- tetracycline
- acetazolamide
11. Beta-blockers
- decrease corneal sensation
- decreases aqueous production
- causes dry eye
- with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) cause further depression
- those with selective Beta-1 receptor activity are safe to use in
patients with asthma
12. Autoclaving
- is not suitable for very sharp instruments
- is suitable for endoscopes
- is more efficient if fitted with a vacuum to remove air before introduction
of steam
- is used for sterilisation of disposble gloves, needles
13. The following are non-absorbable sutures
- Monofilament _____
14. HIV
- CD 4 cells have receptors for HIV
- Infection affects only cell mediated reactions
- HIV can survive in macrophages
15. Candida
- Candida in mouth and alimentary tract can occur in health
- Is sensitive to tetracycline
- Is spread via lymphatics
- Is spread via blood stream
16. The following are responsible for breakdown of micro-organisms after
they are phagocytosed
- lecithinase
- lysozyme
- lysozymal enzymes
- hydrogen peroxide
17. Following solutions are suitable for sending a biopsy specimen
- chilled saline solution
- distilled water
- 10% formaldehyde solution
- alcohol
18. Streptococci
- non-motile
- forms spores
19. Ocular prostaglandins
- synthesis is decreased by corticosteroids
- once synthesised, can be inhibited by NSAIDs
20. The following occurs in acute inflammation
- plasma cell exudation
- vasodilation
21. Granulomata
- are seen in granulating tissue
-
22. Epithelia
- defects are healed by proliferation of surviving epithelial cells
- always results in a scar
23. Thymus-dependant (T) lymphocytes
- produce antibodies
- are found in paracortical areas of lymph nodes
- are found in red pulp of spleen
24. NSAIDs
- are used to prevent intra-operative mydriasis
- may aggravate bleeding tendencies
- no significant effect in lowering inflammatory reactions in infection
- when used topically, systemic effects are not significant
- no significant effet in IOP lowering
25. The following conditions are associated with an immunocompromised
state
- pyogenic infections
- squamous carcinoma of the skin
- malignant lymphoma
26. Tumour staging
- Assess extent and spread of disease
- can only be used for carcinoma
- is synonymous with tumour grading
- is classified with only clinical findings
27. The following viruses are oncogenic
- Hepatitis B
- Enteroviruses
28. The following is associated with EBV
- maxillary sinus carcinoma
- carcinoma of the cervix uteri
- infectious mononucelosis
- acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
- nasopharnygeal carcinoma
29. The following tumours are associated with UV radiation
- basal cell papilloma
- retinoblastoma
- basal cell carcinoma
- squamous cell carcinoma
- melanoma
30. The following is common to both benign and malignant tumours
- multicentric origin
- invasion
- recurrence
- mitotic figures
31. Apoptosis
- is an abnormal process triggered by T cell lymphocytes
- incites an inflammatory response
- has a role in embryo development
32. Benign tumours
- never spread to distant tissues
- are usually well-encapsulated
- ususally grow slowly
33. Harmatomas
- may contain tissue of more than one cell line
- have unlimited growth potential
- occur in adults
- exemplified by chondroma of the lung
34. Cavernous haemangiomas
- may involute spontaneously
- has a single feeding vessels
- may cause consumption coagulopathy
- may cause hypertrophy of one limb
- may be intra-dermal
35. Tuberculosis
- caseation occurs only in primary lesions
- calcified lesions may contain viable organisms
- Langhan’s giant cells have to bee seen in histological sections for
diagnosis
36. Clostridia
- is anaerobic
- Gram negative
- Pathogenic effects are mediated via endotoxin
36. Tetanus
- incubation period is less than 48hrs
- immunity is life-long
- forms spores
- infection occurs after major trauma
38. Pilocarpine
- obtained from pilocarpus shrub
- may cause breakdown of blood aqueous barrier
- lowers intra-ocular pressure in normal people
- toxic side effects include dry mouth and lack of sweating
39. Anaphylaxis
- is mediated by IgE
- occurs on first exposure to the antigen
40. MRSA
- more likely to cause deep seated infection than other Staphylococcus
- can be treated with vancomycin
- can be phage typed for epidemiological purposes