a. contains double stranded DNA 

b. possess an envelope

c. causes adenoviral keratitis which responds well to topical acyclovir

d. can be classified into more than 40 serotypes

e. causes skin papilloma

answera.T   b.F   c.F   d.T   e.F
It does not have an envelope.
There is no known specific treatment for adenoviral keratitis but steroid can reduce the inflammation
Skin papilloma is not caused by adenovirus.

2. Rubella:

a. is transmitted through the respiratory tract

b. is a RNA virus

c. has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days

d. has maximal infectivity 24 hours before the patients develop a papulomacular rash

e. more likely to cause fetal abnormalities when the mother becomes infected in late 
    trimester

answera.T   b.T   c.T   d.F   e.F
Maximal infectivity coincides with a papulomacular rash
Fetal abnormalities are more likely in the early trimester when the fetal organs are developing.

3. Measles:

a. can be prevented through immunization with a live attenuated strains

b. causes fetal abnormalities if the mother becomes infected during pregnancy

c. is most infectious before the onset of symptoms

d. is associated with secondary bacterial infection which is the main cause of 
    mortality

e. causes blindness through corneal scarring

answera.T   b.F   c.T   d.T   e.T
Blindness through corneal scarring is rare in well-nourished children. It tends to occur in patients with vitamin A deficiency.

4. Fetal abnormalities occurs if the mother becomes infected with:

a. hepatitis A

b. cytomegalovirus

c. syphilis

d. toxoplasmosis

e. Listeria monocytogenes

answera.F   b.T   c.T   d.T   e.T
TORCH is a useful mnemonic for infections that cause featal abnormalities:
Toxoplasmosis
Other (syphilis, Listeria, HIV type 1)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes

5. DNA virus include the following:

a. hepatitis A

b. hepatitis B

c. hepatitis C

d. molluscum contagiosum

e. varicella zoster

answera.F   b.T   c.F   d.T   e.T

a. is a retrovirus containing RNA

b. contains env gene which encodes the core nucleocapsid polypeptides

c. binds specifically to B lymphocytes

d. causes an increase in CD8 lymphocytes during seroconversion

e. can be detected in infected individuals by measuring the p24 antigen

answera.T   b.F   b.F   d.T   e.T
gag gene encode the core nucleocapsid polypeptides
It binds to T lymphocytes
p24 is the nucleocapsid protein which is raised in HIV-1 infection.

7. CD4:

a. is a T helper cells

b. in normal individual is around 600 - 1500 cells per mm³

c. contains receptors in its membrane for the gp120 envelop protein

d. is usually less than 100 cells per mm3 in patients with CMV retinitis

e. is increased during treatment with HAART

answera.T   b.T   c.T   d.T   e.T

8. Normal flora of the conjunctiva include:

a. chlamydia

b. Streptococcus viridens

c. Streptococcus epidermidis

d. Staphylococcus aureus

e. Nocardia

answera.F   b.T   c.T   d.T   e.F

9. Acanthoamoeba:

a. is the most common cause of infective keratitis in contact lens wearer

b. A. castellani and A. polyphaga are the two most common subtypes seen in 
   acanthamoeba keratitis

c. can be cultured from the nasopharynx of healthy individuals

d. can be killed with 3% hydrogen peroxide 

e. causes corneal neovascularization early in the course of the disease

answera.F   b.T    c.T   d.T   e.F
Pseudomonas is the most common cause of contact-lens associated corneal ulcer.
Corneal neovascularization is rare despite the chronicity of acanthoamoeba keratitis

10. With regard to Moraxella lacunata:

a. it is a Gram negative bacillus

b. it causes chronic conjunctivitis

c. it is implicated in angular blepharitis

d. it causes keratitis in debilitating patients

e. it causes crystalline keratopathy

answera.T   b.T   c.T   d.T   e.F
Crystalline keratopathy is classically caused by Streptococcal infections.
 
 

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